UPSC IAS Civil Services Preliminary (Prelims) Exam – 2022: General Studies Paper

1. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provision of lending by which one of the following?

(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
(d) World Bank

Answer – b

The correct answer is International Monetary Fund.

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has a lending facility called the Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) that provides swift financial assistance to member countries dealing with urgent balance of payments issues. The RFI was established as part of a larger effort to make the IMF’s financial aid more adaptable to the varying needs of member nations. It has replaced the IMF’s previous emergency assistance policy and can be utilized in a wide range of circumstances.
The IMF’s Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) extends swift, concessional financial aid to low-income countries (LICs) that are experiencing pressing balance of payments needs, without imposing any ex-post conditionality. This means that a comprehensive economic program is not necessary or feasible in such situations.

2. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – c

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

The nominal effective exchange rate (NEER) represents an unadjusted average rate at which a country’s currency exchanges with a basket of multiple foreign currencies, using a weighted system. The nominal exchange rate reflects the amount of domestic currency needed to purchase foreign currency. When the domestic currency increases against the basket of other currencies within a floating exchange rate regime, NEER appreciates, while if the domestic currency decreases, NEER depreciates. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is a weighted average of a country’s currency concerning an index or basket of other significant currencies. The weights are determined by comparing the relative trade balance of a country’s currency to that of each country in the index. If a nation’s REER rises, it indicates that its exports are becoming more expensive, while imports are becoming cheaper, resulting in decreased trade competitiveness. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) stays in sync with inflation trends. The upward biases in REER due to inflation have been recently observed in India. An increase in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. The growing gap between trends of NEER and REER in recent times was due to India’s domestic inflation being higher relative to the six major currencies considered. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

3. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – b

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Open Market Operations (OMOs) refer to the buying and selling of government securities by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on behalf of the central government to regulate money supply and interest rates. OMOs aim to manage the existing liquidity or money supply in the economy. During an inflationary situation, the RBI adopts a contractionary monetary policy by selling government securities and absorbing excess money from the financial flow. Conversely, during a recessionary trend, RBI aims to increase money supply in the market and ensure sufficient credit availability for investment and production. Thus, it buys securities, which increases the money supply. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Changes in interest rates in a foreign economy can prompt action on the part of the RBI. For instance, if the US Federal Reserve reduces money supply, interest rates in the US increase. As a result, Financial Institutional Investments (FIIs) into India decrease, as US debt investments become more attractive. The reduced demand for the rupee due to lower interest on the part of global institutional investors leads to the depreciation of the rupee. In response, the RBI may sell dollars from its reserves to support the Indian currency. Conversely, if interest rates in the US or the EU decrease, FIIs will increase investments in India. The resulting demand for rupees causes the rupee to appreciate, and RBI will buy dollars and inject rupees into the system. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

4. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:

It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – c

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

The Common Framework for debt treatment is an initiative endorsed by the G20 and the Paris Club to provide structural support to Low Income Countries struggling with unsustainable debt, beyond the Debt Service Suspension Initiative (DSSI). This coordinated process involves official bilateral creditors from the Paris Club and G20. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
Currently, three countries have requested treatment under the Common Framework. In April 2021, the first Creditor Committee was launched to address Chad’s debt.

5. With reference to the India economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?

Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
IIGs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – a

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs) are financial instruments that provide protection to investors against inflation. These bonds have their principal and interest payments linked to the rate of inflation. As a result, IIBs can reduce the coupon rates on government borrowing. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs) are designed to provide both investors and issuers protection against the risks of inflation during the bond’s lifespan. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The prevailing tax laws are applicable to the interest payment and capital gains on Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs), and there is no special tax treatment for these bonds. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

6. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – b

The correct answer is 2 only.

The FDI Policy allows retail trading in certain forms through e-commerce for companies with FDI engaging in the activities of multi-brand retail trading. However, India has not allowed FDI in inventory-driven models of e-commerce. The inventory model, which Walmart and Amazon use in the United States, is where the goods and services are owned by an e-commerce firm that sells directly to retail customers. The restriction is aimed largely at protecting India’s vast unorganized retail sector that does not have the clout to purchase at scale and offer big discounts. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
India amended its FDI policy in e-commerce marketplaces in 2018 to classify any vendor accounting for more than 25% of the platform’s total sales as “controlled” by the marketplace operator. This means that no seller must exceed 25% of the total business on any foreign e-commerce platform. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

8. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India?

(a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
(b) A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India.
(d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India

Answer – d

The correct answer is Option d.

Indirect transfers occur when foreign entities possess shares or assets in India, and instead of directly transferring the underlying assets in India, they transfer the shares of those foreign entities.
If a transfer involves the shares of a foreign company or an interest in an entity registered outside India, and if those shares or interest derive significant value from assets located in India directly or indirectly, it is known as an ‘Indirect Transfer.’ Such transfers are deemed to generate income in India and are taxable for all individuals, including non-residents and not ordinarily residents.

9. With reference to the expenditure made by an organization or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – a

The correct answer is 1 only.

A company utilizes capital expenditures (CapEx) to acquire, enhance, and maintain physical assets such as technology, buildings, plants, property, or equipment. CapEx is often utilized for new investments or projects. Examples of capital expenditures include purchases of land, equipment, property, software, furniture, and computers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Debt financing refers to a situation where a firm raises funds for capital expenditures or working capital by selling debt instruments to individual or institutional investors. In exchange for lending money, the investors or individuals become creditors and receive a promise that the principal and interest on the debt will be repaid. The alternative method of raising capital in debt markets is to issue shares of stock in a public offering, which is known as equity financing. Both debt financing and equity financing are types of capital expenditures. Revenue expenditures are daily operating expenses used to manage business operations in the short term. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

10. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – c

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

In FY18, 50.8% of households’ savings were in financial assets, while physical assets accounted for 48.1%, and gold/silver ornaments comprised 1.1%. The largest type of financial asset held by households was deposits with banks, followed by insurance funds, mutual funds, and currency. Since insurance companies and mutual/provident funds are significant investors in government securities, a portion of households’ financial savings is invested in government borrowings. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Internal Debt refers to loans obtained through the open market, compensation and other bonds, among other things. It also involves borrowing through treasury bills, such as those issued to state governments, commercial banks, and other investors, as well as non-negotiable, non-interest-bearing dated securities issued to international financial institutions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

11. Consider the following statements:

Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only

Answer – b

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4 only.

The H. N. Sanyal committee, established in 1961, conducted a thorough review of the law and issues concerning contempt of court. The committee’s recommendations were generally accepted, and as a result, the Contempt of Court Act, 1971 was enacted by Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
According to Article 129 and 215 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court and High Court, respectively, have the authority to punish individuals for contempt of court. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The Contempt of Courts Act of 1971, not the Constitution, defines civil and criminal contempt. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Article 142 (2) of the Constitution states that “subject to the provisions of any law made in this behalf by Parliament,” the Supreme Court has complete authority to make any order for the punishment of contempt of itself. As a result, Parliament can enact laws on Contempt of Court. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

12. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – b

The correct answer is 2 only.

To represent a party in litigation, an Advocate must possess a law degree and be enrolled with the Bar Council in accordance with the provisions of the Advocates Act, 1961. Law firms are not regarded as advocates in this situation. While a patent attorney or patent lawyer is an individual who is authorized to handle patent litigation by virtue of possessing a law degree, they are not always advocates. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Bar Councils are responsible for promoting legal education and establishing legal education standards. This is achieved in collaboration with the State Bar Councils and the universities in India that provide legal education. The Bar Councils are also authorized to recognize universities whose law degrees are accepted as qualifications for enrolling as an advocate and to visit and examine such universities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

13. Consider the following statements:

A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – b

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

The process of amending the Indian Constitution is outlined in Article 368 of the Constitution. Only a minister can introduce a Constitutional Amendment bill, not a private member, and it does require the prior permission of the President. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
After the bill is passed by both houses of Parliament and, where necessary, ratified by state legislatures, it is presented to the President for assent. The President is required to give assent to the bill and cannot withhold it or return it for reconsideration by Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Each house of Parliament must pass the bill separately by a special majority. If the two houses disagree, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting to deliberate and pass the bill. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

14. Consider the following statements:

The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – b

The correct answer is 2 only.

The Council of Ministers is composed of three types of ministers: Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers. While the Constitution does not specify its size and classification, its three-tier structure is based on the conventions of parliamentary government developed in Britain and has been given legislative sanction through the Salaries and Allowances Act of 1952. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 introduced provisions to restrict the size of the Council of Ministers. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Central Council of Ministers cannot exceed 15 percent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

15. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

To ratify the declaration of Emergency
To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer – b

The correct answer is 2 only.

The approval of both houses of Parliament is required for the proclamation of any type of emergency. The National Emergency proclamation must be approved by both houses within one month, while the proclamation of President’s Rule and financial emergency must be approved within two months from the date of their issue. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
A no-confidence motion can only be moved in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha. Any member of the Lok Sabha can move a no-confidence motion, and the procedure for moving it is specified in Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Either House of Parliament can initiate impeachment charges against the President. However, for the President to be removed from office, both houses must pass the impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of their total membership. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

16. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – b

The correct answer is 2 only.

According to the Anti-defection Law, a nominated member of a House can be disqualified for being a member of the House if they join a political party after six months from the date on which they take their seat in the House. Therefore, they can join a political party within the first six months of becoming a member. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
The decision regarding disqualification due to defection is to be made by the presiding officer of the House. The law does not specify a time limit within which the presiding officer must make a decision on a defection case. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

17. Consider the following statements:

Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – d

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

The Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all courts within the country while performing his official duties. Additionally, as per Article 88, he can participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament, their joint sitting, and any parliamentary committee of which he is a member. However, he cannot vote. On the other hand, the Solicitor General of India does not have a similar right to participate in parliamentary meetings. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of the President, which means that he can be removed from office by the President at any time. He can also resign by submitting his resignation to the President. Although conventionally, the Attorney General resigns when the council of ministers resigns or is replaced as he is appointed on their advice, this is not mentioned in the Constitution of India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

18. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – c

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

According to the Supreme Court’s ruling in Binny Ltd. and Anr. v. V. Sadasivan and Ors, a writ of mandamus can be issued against a private body if there is a public law element involved, but it cannot be used to enforce a purely private contract between parties. The scope of mandamus is determined by the nature of the duty to be enforced, not the identity of the authority against whom it is sought. If the private body is carrying out a public function and the denial of any right is related to the public duty imposed on it, a public law remedy can be enforced. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Mandamus, which literally means ‘we command,’ is a court order issued to a public official asking them to perform their official duties that they have failed or refused to carry out. It can be issued against any public body, corporation, inferior court, tribunal, or government company for the same purpose. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
A writ of quo warranto can be sought by any interested person, not necessarily by the aggrieved person. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

19. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – b

The correct answer is 3 only.

The participation of a healthcare facility or an institution in Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) is voluntary and is up to the respective management, whether it is government or private. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The vision of ABDM is to create a national digital health ecosystem that supports universal health coverage in an efficient, accessible, inclusive, affordable, timely, and safe manner. The ABHA number is a unique identification number issued to a beneficiary under the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY) scheme. It is not mandatory for all citizens to get an ABHA number, but those who wish to participate in the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission and want their health records available digitally may create one. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) will have a national footprint and enable seamless portability across the country through a Health ID – Personal Health Identifier. Adoption of Health Information Standards will play a pivotal role in ensuring national portability. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

20. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer – a

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

The process of election of Deputy Speaker in Lok Sabha is governed by Rule 8 of The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, which states that the election “shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix”, and the Deputy Speaker is elected once a motion proposing his name is passed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
However, it is not true that since the 11th Lok Sabha, there has been a consensus that the Speaker comes from the ruling party (or ruling alliance) and the post of Deputy Speaker goes to the main opposition party. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
As per Article 95(1), the Deputy Speaker has the same powers as the Speaker when presiding over a sitting of the House. All references to the Speaker in the Rules are deemed to be references to the Deputy Speaker when he presides. No appeal lies to the Speaker against a ruling given by the Deputy Speaker or any person presiding over a sitting of the House in the absence of the Speaker. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
However, statement 4 is not correct as there is no such parliamentary practice that a motion is moved by the Parliamentary Affairs Minister and duly seconded by the treasury benches or by the opposition, which is carried by the House.

21. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ?

(a) Cotton
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Wheat

Answer – b

The correct answer is Rice.

Globally, agriculture is responsible for an estimated 10%–20% of anthropogenic greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. In 2005, it accounted for approximately 50% and 60% of the total anthropogenic emissions of methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O), respectively. Rice paddies, in particular, are identified as one of the major sources of methane and nitrous oxide emissions, which have gained significant attention due to their significant impact on global warming.

22.“System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in:

Reduced seed requirement
Reduced methane production
Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – d

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

The cultivation method known as the System of Rice Intensification (SRI) involves planting young rice seedlings individually at wider spacing in a square pattern and using a significant amount of organic manure. This technique also includes intermittent irrigation to maintain moist soil.

Farmers can utilize the System of Rice Intensification (SRI) as an agroecological and climate-smart methodology to:

increase yields by 30-50% or more
use 90% less seed. So, point 1 is correct.
use 30-50% less irrigation water (through AWD and other methods) by conserving electricity. So, point 3 is correct.
use 30-100% less chemical fertiliser and pesticides
reduction in methane emission. So, point 2 is correct.

23. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into desert?

(a) Lake Victoria
(b) Lake Faguibine
(c) Lake Oguta
(d) Lake Volta

Answer – b

The correct answer is Lake Faguibine.

Lake Faguibine, situated in northern Mali, has been dry since the 1970s, and this has significantly impacted the region.
The area was historically one of Mali’s most productive, known as the Lake Faguibine System, which consisted of four interconnected lakes located 80 km west of Timbuktu. Unfortunately, droughts lasting for seven years during the 1970s caused the lakes to dry up.
Later, sand accumulated in the channels connecting the lakes to the River Niger, which made it impossible for water to reach the lakes even when rain finally returned. As a result, the region’s prosperity declined along with the water levels.

24. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers ?

(a) Cauvery
(b) Manjira
(c) Pennar
(d) Tungabhadra

Answer – c

The correct answer is Pennar.

The Grand Canyon of India, also known as Gandikota canyon, is located in the Kadappa district of Andhra Pradesh. The canyon is a breathtaking labyrinth of red-hued, jagged rocks that have been sculpted by the waters of the renowned Pennar River, which originates from the Erramala hills. The site boasts of two historic temples and a 12th-century fort situated atop the hills that surround the canyon, adding to its cultural significance.

25. Consider the following pairs:

Peak – Mountains

Namcha Barwa – Garhwal Himalaya
Nanda Devi – Kumaon Himalaya
Nokrek – Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer – b

The correct answer is 2 only.

Namcha Barwa, which is located near the easternmost Himalayas in Arunachal Pradesh, is where the Brahmaputra River enters India. It is not located in Garhwal Himalaya. Therefore, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
The Kumaon Himalayas, which stretch for 320 km between the Satluj and Kali rivers, include important peaks such as Nanda Devi (7,817 m), Kamet (7,756 m), Trisul (7,140 m), Badrinath (7,138 m), Kedarnath (6,968 m), and Gangotri (6,510 m). So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Nokrek, the highest peak in the Garo Hills range in Meghalaya, rises to an elevation of 1412 meters above sea level. Most of the major rivers and streams in the Garo Hills region originate from this peak. Therefore, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

26. The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?

(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
(b) Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco
(c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa
(d) The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of areas

Answer – a

The correct answer is Option a.

The term “Levant” has its origin in the French word “lever,” which means “to rise” as in sunrise, and it refers to the historical region that encompasses the eastern Mediterranean coast, including modern-day Israel, Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, and certain adjacent areas.

27. Consider the following countries:

Azerbaijan
Kyrgyzstan
Tajikistan
Uzbekistan
Turkmenistan

Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer – c

The correct answer is 3, 4 and 5 only.

Afghanistan shares borders with Pakistan to the east and south, Iran to the west, and the Central Asian states of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan to the north.

28. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

Monazite is a source of rare earths.
Monazite contains thorium.
Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer – b

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4 only.

Monazite, a beach sand mineral, contains rare earths such as lanthanum, cerium, praseodymium, and neodymium, as well as thorium. Statement 1 and 2 are correct as monazite contains around 55-60% total Rare Earth Oxide.
According to the Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD), a unit of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), 11.93 million tonnes of monazite resources are estimated to be present in the beach sand mineral placer deposits in the coastal areas of India. However, statement 3 is incorrect as monazite is not naturally found in the entire Indian coastal sands.
To export monazite, a license from the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) under the Atomic Energy Act 1962 is required. Private entities have not been issued any license for monazite production, downstream processing for thorium extraction, or for the export of monazite or thorium. Only the state-run Indian Rare Earths Limited (IREL) is authorized to produce and export monazite. Therefore, statement 4 is correct.

29. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:

(a) First half of the month of June
(b) Second half of the month of June
(c) First half of the month of July
(d) Second half of the month of July

Answer – b

The correct answer is Option b.

June 21 marks the longest day of 2021 for individuals living north of the Equator. This event is known as the summer solstice and it represents the longest day of the summer season. At this time, the sun is positioned directly over the Tropic of Cancer, which is located at 23.5 degrees north latitude.
This will occur at approximately 9:02 am on Monday according to Indian Standard Time. During the solstice, the Earth’s axis is tilted in a way that causes the North Pole to be directed towards the sun, while the South Pole is facing away from it. This axis is what the planet rotates around, completing one rotation per day.

30. Consider the following pairs:

Wetland/Lake – Location

Hokera Wetland – Punjab
Renuka Wetland – Himachal Pradesh
Rudrasagar Lake – Tripura
Sasthamkotta Lake – Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

Answer – b

The correct answer is Option b.

Hokera wetland is located in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. It is located at the northwest Himalayan biogeographic province of Kashmir, behind the snow-draped Pir Panchal. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Renuka Wetland is located in Himachal Pradesh. It is a natural wetland with freshwater springs and inland subterranean karst formations, fed by a small stream flowing from the lower Himalayan out to the Giri river. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Rudrasagar lake is located in Tripura. It is a lowland sedimentation reservoir in the northeast hills, fed by three perennial streams discharging to the River Gomti. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Sasthamkotta lake is located in Kerala. It is the largest freshwater lake in Kerala state in the southwest of the country, spring-fed and the source of drinking water for half a million people in the Kollam district. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.

31. Consider the following:

Aarogya Setu
COWIN
DigiLocker
DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer – d

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Open-source software allows anyone to access, examine, modify, and improve the source code of a program or application. The source code is the part of the software that most users do not see, but programmers can manipulate to modify how a software works or add new features. Programs such as Arogya Setu, COWIN, Digilocker, and DIKSHA have been developed using open-source digital platforms.

32. With reference to Web 3-0, consider the following statements:

Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks.
Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – d

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Web 3.0 is the next phase of the internet’s evolution, and it has the potential to be as disruptive and paradigm-shifting as Web 2.0. Web 3.0 is centered around decentralization, openness, and providing greater user utility.
The following are the characteristics of Web 3.0:
- Decentralization is a core principle of Web 3.0. In Web 2.0, computers utilize HTTP and unique web addresses to locate information, which is typically stored at a fixed location, usually on a single server. In contrast, Web 3.0 allows information to be stored in multiple locations at the same time and found based on its content, thus making it decentralized. This would break down the large databases owned by tech giants like Google and Meta and give greater control to users. Furthermore, with Web 3.0, users will sell the data produced by various powerful computing resources, including mobile devices, appliances, and sensors, through decentralized data networks, ensuring that users retain ownership and control. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
- Besides being based on open-source software and decentralization, Web 3.0 will allow participants to interact directly without the need for a trusted intermediary. Moreover, anyone can participate without the authorization of a governing body. Web 3.0 applications will run on blockchains or decentralized peer-to-peer networks. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

33. With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)”, consider the following statements:

SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields.
SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.
Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – d

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

SaaS, or Software as a Service, is a software delivery model where an application is hosted by a cloud provider and accessed by users over the internet. The provider can be a third-party cloud provider contracted by an independent software vendor (ISV) to host the application.
In the SaaS model, the provider gives customers access to a single copy of an application that is specifically created for SaaS distribution. The source code of the application is the same for all customers, and when new features or functionalities are added, they are made available to all customers. Depending on the service-level agreement (SLA), customer data can be stored locally, in the cloud, or both. SaaS applications can be integrated with other software using APIs, which allow businesses to write their own software tools and integrate them with the SaaS offering. This enables SaaS users to customize the user interface and data fields, as well as access their data via mobile devices. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Email services, such as Yahoo, Hotmail, and Outlook, are also examples of SaaS. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

34. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media?

(a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
(b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
(c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
(d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its surface.

Answer – c

The correct answer is Option c.

The concept of the Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS) involves placing a warhead in a stable orbit and then deorbiting it over the intended target. If the launch position and target are aligned, and the warhead continues to orbit the earth, it will eventually complete a circle, albeit in a spiral fashion due to the earth’s movement. However, the warhead’s horizontal movement is adjusted in such a way that it still passes over the target. The key advantage of this approach is that the missile can travel directly to the target or can be fired in the opposite direction and still reach the target from the opposite direction.

35. Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned?

(a) Cloud Services
(b) Quantum Computing
(c) Visible Light Communication Technologies
(d) Wireless Communication Technologies

Answer – b

The correct answer is Quantum Computing.

A qubit, short for quantum bit, is the quantum mechanical equivalent of a classical bit used in traditional computing. In classical computing, bits store information as either a 0 or 1 value. In quantum computing, qubits store information in a more complex manner. A qubit can exist in a state of 0, 1, or a superposition of both states, meaning that it can simultaneously represent both values. This phenomenon is known as superposition.

36. Consider the following communication technologies:

Closed-circuit Television
Radio Frequency Identification
Wireless Local Area Network

Which of the above are considered of the Short-Range devices/technologies?

(a) 1 and 2 only.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – d

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Short Range Devices (SRD) are radio devices that offer a low risk of interference with other radio services, usually because their transmitted power, and hence their range, is low. The definition ‘Short Range Device’ may be applied to many different types of wireless equipment, including various forms of:

Access control (including door and gate openers)
Alarms and movement detectors
Closed-circuit television (CCTV)
Cordless audio devices, including wireless microphones
Industrial control
Local Area Networks
Medical implants
Metering devices
Remote control
Radio frequency identification (RFID)
Road Transport Telematics
Telemetry.

37. Consider the following statements:

Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – d

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Biofilms are communities of microorganisms that can adhere to a variety of surfaces and are composed of bacteria, fungi, and protists.
Dental plaque is a common example of a biofilm, which is formed by bacteria on the surface of teeth. Biofilms can also be found in pond scum and can grow on minerals, metals, plants, and animals. They can also form on food and implanted medical devices such as catheters and pacemakers. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Microorganisms living within biofilms have several advantages, including exhibiting antibiotic resistance. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.

38. Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics :

Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Answer – c

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Probiotics are microorganisms that are beneficial for health when ingested or applied to the body. They are present in fermented foods like yogurt, dietary supplements, and beauty products. While microorganisms are often associated with harmful germs, some can be helpful by aiding in digestion, fighting diseases, or producing vitamins.
Probiotics can contain various microorganisms, with the most common being Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium bacteria groups. Other types of bacteria and yeasts such as Saccharomyces boulardii can also be used as probiotics. Most of the microorganisms found in probiotics are either the same or similar to the ones found naturally in our bodies. Therefore, statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect.
Lactobacillus acidophilus is a probiotic bacterium that naturally exists in the human gut and other parts of the body. It aids in breaking down sugars like lactose into lactic acid, which helps the digestive system. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

39. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:

The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – b

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Covishield, produced by the Serum Institute of India, is a vaccine that uses a replication-deficient chimpanzee adenovirus vector to encode the SARS-CoV-2 Spike (S) glycoprotein. This stimulates an immune response in the body. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct.
The Sputnik V vaccine, developed by Moscow’s Gamaleya Institute, is based on a non-replicating human adenovirus vector platform. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
COVAXIN is a whole-virion inactivated coronavirus vaccine manufactured by Bharat Biotech. It is also used to manufacture vaccines such as Influenza, Rabies, and Hepatitis-A. So, statement 3 is correct.
In mRNA vaccines, messenger RNAs trigger an immune response in our bodies, which produces antibodies to protect us from the infection. Currently, researchers at the CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology in India are testing an mRNA vaccine candidate against Covid-19.

40. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?

GPS and navigation systems could fail.
Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
Power grids could be damaged.
Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Answer – c

The correct answer is 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only.

Solar flares are explosions from the surface of the sun that emit intense bursts of electromagnetic radiation. The classification of the flare is determined by the intensity of the explosion, with X-class flares being the most powerful, followed by M-, C-, and B-class, while A-class flares are the smallest. These outbursts occur when magnetic energy builds up in the solar atmosphere and is released suddenly, and are linked to the approximately 11-year cycle of solar activity driven by the sun’s magnetic field.
Solar flares, particularly X-class flares, can affect Earth, satellites, and even astronauts. They can lead to the failure of GPS and navigation systems, damage power grids on Earth, and result in intense auroras over much of the planet. High-intensity solar flares can also disturb space activities, causing disruptions to satellite orbits and shortwave radio communication of aircraft flying over polar regions. Therefore, statements 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 are correct.
However, it should be noted that solar flares are not known to result in tsunamis or forest fires. This is because the solar wind directed towards Earth becomes weaker with deeper penetration towards the topographic surface. Therefore, statements 2 and 5 are not correct.

41. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction Pledges of different countries is a:

(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
(b) Wing of ‘International Panel of Climate Change”
(c) Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Answer – a

The correct answer is Option a.

The Climate Action Tracker is an impartial scientific evaluation that monitors the efforts of governments to combat climate change and assesses their progress in accordance with the internationally recognized goal of the Paris Agreement, which aims to “keep global warming well below 2°C, and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5°C.” The CAT is a partnership between two organizations, Climate Analytics and New Climate Institute, and has been offering its unbiased analyses to policymakers since 2009.

42. Consider the following statements:

“The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer – b

The correct answer is 1, 3 and 4 only.

The Climate Group, an international non-profit founded in 2003, aims for a world with net zero carbon emissions by 2050 and greater prosperity for all. It achieves this by building and running networks that bring organizations together to take collective action towards these goals. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
EP100 is a global initiative led by the Climate Group, not the International Energy Agency, so statement 2 is not correct.
EP100 brings together more than 120 energy-smart businesses committed to measuring and reporting on energy efficiency improvements. Members are reducing emissions while improving competitiveness and inspiring others to follow their lead, thus statement 3 is correct.
Several Indian companies, such as Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd, Godrej Industries Ltd, JSW Cement Ltd, and UltraTech Cement Limited, are members of EP100, so statement 4 is correct.
The Under2 Coalition, which brings together more than 270 governments representing 1.75 billion people and 50% of the global economy, is committed to keeping global temperature rise well below 2°C with efforts to reach 1.5°C. The Climate Group serves as the secretariat to the Under2 Coalition. Therefore, statement 5 is not correct.

43. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?

(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
(c) 58 15 Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

Answer – d

The correct answer is Option d.

The Ramsar Convention defines wetlands as areas of land that are covered by water, either permanently or temporarily, and can be natural or man-made, consisting of marshes, fens, peatlands, or water bodies with static or flowing water, including those with fresh, brackish or saltwater.
Wetlands are critical for humans, other ecosystems, and the climate as they provide crucial ecosystem services, such as water regulation that aids in flood control and water purification. They also have the ability to absorb carbon dioxide, thus helping to reduce pollution and slow global warming. Wetlands are often referred to as the “Kidneys of the Earth.”

44. In the Guidelines, statements: context of WHO consider the Air Quality following

The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer – b

The correct answer is 1 and 4 only.

According to the WHO Air Quality Guidelines, the annual average concentrations of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m3, while 24-hour average exposures should not exceed 15 µg/m3 more than 3 – 4 days per year. So, statement 1 is correct.
Some pollutants, such as ground-level ozone, are made more efficiently in sunny, hot weather. The reactions that create harmful ozone in our atmosphere require sunlight. In the summers and especially during extreme heat waves, other pollutants like nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds mix with sunlight to form dangerous levels of ozone in cities or nearby rural areas. Humidity can help to decrease ozone pollution. Afternoon thunderstorm clouds block sunlight, causing ozone production to slow down for the day, while moisture from the storm destroys the ozone that has formed. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Studies have shown that PM with a diameter of 10 μm (PM10) can enter the lungs but not the bloodstream. However, PM particles with a diameter of 2.5 μm or less (PM2.5) can reach the distal lung segments, including the alveoli, pass into the bloodstream, and are capable of penetrating blood-organ barriers affecting multiple organ systems, such as the brain, heart, liver, and kidney. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Ozone pollution is the result of hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxide emissions from motor vehicles or other sources, mixed in the presence of sunlight. It causes increased wheezing, coughing, and chest tightness, especially among susceptible children who play outdoors in polluted environments. Excessive ozone can trigger asthma because it is very irritating to the lungs and airways. So, statement 4 is correct.

45. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:

It is a fungus.
It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer – c

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Gucchi mushrooms, the most expensive fungi in the world, are grown in the cool foothills of the Himalayas, particularly in Himachal, Uttaranchal, and Jammu & Kashmir, where they thrive in the conifer forests across temperate regions. While they prefer growing during the rainy season, it takes several months to collect, dry, and bring them to the market. These mushrooms are not commercially cultivated in the northeastern Himalayan foothills of India. Thus, statement 1 and 2 are correct, and statement 3 is incorrect.

46. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:

Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3

Answer – a

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

PET (polyethylene terephthalate) is the primary polyester used in fiber production. It is frequently blended with other fibers, such as wool, rayon, and cotton, to improve their inherent qualities and the fabric’s wrinkle recovery properties. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
Water permeation in PET bottles is not desirable, particularly for high concentrations of spirits in small bottles and high storage temperatures. If the temperature rises during storage, the plastic and chemical substances in plastic (such as ethylene glycol) tend to leach significantly into the alcohol stored. Therefore, statement 2 is not correct.
PET bottles are recyclable and can be used to make new bottles, fibers, films, thermoformed packaging, and straps. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.
Burning plastics emits harmful gases such as dioxins, furans, mercury, and polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) into the air, which can be detrimental to plants, human health, and animals. Therefore, statement 4 is correct.

47. Which of the following is not a bird?

(a) Golden Mahseer
(b) Indian Nightjar
(c) Spoonbill
(d) White Ibis

Answer – a

The correct answer is Golden Mahseer.

The Golden Mahseer is a type of cyprinid fish, which is also known as the “tiger among fish”. “Mahseer” roughly translates to “mahi-fish” and “sher-tiger”. This fish is recognized as the strongest among freshwater sport fish due to its large size.

48. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?

Alfalfa
Amaranth
Chickpea
Clover
Purslane (Kulfa)
Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

Answer – a

The correct answer is 1, 3 and 4 only.

Alfalfa is capable of symbiotic nitrogen fixation, which contributes substantial amounts of nitrogen to livestock operations, subsequent crops, and soil organic matter. Therefore, point 1 is correct.
Chickpeas are also capable of symbiotic nitrogen fixation, as they form root nodules that host symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacteria. Hence, point 3 is correct.
Clovers have a symbiotic relationship with Rhizobium bacteria, which infect the plant’s roots to “fix” atmospheric nitrogen and make it available to plants. The plant provides energy to the bacteria, and the bacteria provide the machinery necessary for nitrogen fixation. Therefore, point 4 is correct.
Amaranth, Purslane (Kulfa), and Spinach are not nitrogen-fixing plants. Therefore, points 2, 5, and 6 are not correct.

49. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?

(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
(b) Development of building materials using plant residues
(c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas

Answer – a

The correct answer is Option a.

Biorock technology was initially developed in 1976 to create natural construction materials in the ocean. This innovative process is a distinctive technique that promotes the survival and recovery of various marine ecosystems, such as coral reefs, seagrass, salt marsh, mangroves, and oyster reefs, that have been damaged due to excessive nutrients, climate change, and physical destruction. It significantly enhances the settlement, growth, survival, and ability to withstand stress, such as high temperatures and pollution, of all marine organisms.

50. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:

(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
(d). Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces
(c) Development of gardens genetically modified flora using
(d) Creation of mini forests in urban areas

Answer – c

The correct answer is Option c.

The Miyawaki forestation method was developed by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki in the 1970s. It involves planting young native plant species such as trees, shrubs, and grasses in tight groves to restore degraded lands and create urban forests. The saplings planted closely together grow rapidly as they compete for light. By replicating the vegetation layers found in a mature forest with a native tree assortment, Miyawaki fast-forwards the stages of ecological succession by which a degraded plot turns naturally into a forest.

51. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects?

Administration of Justice
Local Self-Government
Land Revenue
Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer – c

The correct answer is 1, 3 and 4 only.

The introduction of Dyarchy in 1919 under the Government of India Act brought about a division of power at the provincial level. The Governor-in-Council was responsible for the administration of the “Reserved subjects,” which included finance, land revenue, justice, police, prison, famine relief, irrigation, press, and public service. The ministers, on the other hand, were in charge of the “Transferred subjects,” which included local self-government, education, public health, agriculture, excise, public works, and cooperative societies.

52. In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to:

(a) Clothing
(b) Coins
(c) Ornaments
(d) Weapons

Answer – b

The correct answer is Coins.

The Fanam was a gold currency that was exclusively used in Southern India during the 17th to 19th century. Its name, Fanam, is an anglicized version of the word Panam which means coin.
Fanams were primarily made of gold and were one of the smallest coins in the world, weighing between 0.35-0.4 grams (full) or 0.15-0.2 grams (half). They were widely used for trading.
The states that issued gold fanams included Maratha, Mysore, Cochin, Coorg or Kurg, Travancore, Negapatnam (for circulation in Ceylon), Tuticorin, and the Mughal Empire. Even the Madras Presidency issued fanams until 1815. In Danish India, fano was issued, while in French India, it was called fanon.

53. Consider the following freedom fighters:

Barindra Kumar Ghosh
Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer – d

The correct answer is 3 only.

Barindra Kumar Ghosh was imprisoned during the Swadeshi years and the First World War, which prevented his participation in Ghadar.
Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee was initially a member of Anushilan Samiti but later became one of the founding members of HRA/HSRA.
Rash Behari Bose was the only one among them who actively participated in the Ghadar movement. He assisted the Ghadar members who came to India in their plan to incite rebellion in the army, which ultimately failed.

54. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:

The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – b

The correct answer is 2 only.

In March 1942, Stafford Cripps led a mission to India to propose constitutional changes aimed at seeking Indian support for the war effort.
The proposal included the establishment of a Constituent Assembly composed of elected members from provinces, with only the section representing the Princely states to be nominated. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
The mission also allowed for provinces not prepared to accept the new Constitution to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding their future status. This provision became a significant reason for the failure of the Cripps mission as it allowed for the possible balkanization of India. So, statement 2 is correct.

55. With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:

Nettipakarana
Parishishtaparvan
Avadanashataka
Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana

Which of the above are Jaina texts?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer – b

The correct answer is 2 and 4 only.

Nettipakarana	It is a Buddhist scripture, sometimes included in the Khuddaka Nikaya of Sutta Pitaka. So, point 1 is not correct.
Parishishtaparvan	It is a 12th century Sanskrit mahakavya by Acharya Hemachandra. He was a contemporary of the Chaulukyan king Kumarapala. The text gives details of early Jaina teachers. So, point 2 is correct.
Avadanashataka	It is a collection of 100 Buddhist legends. (avadana: type of Buddhist literature telling deeds/events of the past and subsequent lives of Buddha e.g. Mahavastu, Avadanashataka and Divyavadana). So, point 3 is not correct.
Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana	It is an important Jain text composed by Acharya Jinesena. He was in the court of Amoghavarsha, a famous Rashtrakuta king. Famous for quotation about the nature of God as non-creator in Jainism. So, point 4 is correct.

56. With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs:

S. No.	Historical person	Known as
1	Aryadeva	Jaina scholar
2	Dignaga	Buddhist scholar
3	Nathamuni	Vaishnava scholar

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) None of the pairs
(b) Only one pair
(c) Only two pairs
(d) All three pairs

Answer – c

The correct answer is Option c.

Aryadeva	Pair 1 is incorrect as the disciple of Nagarjuna, who was an important Buddhist monk of the Mahayana tradition in the 3rd century, belonged to the Madhyamaka sub-school of Mahayana Buddhism.
Dignaga	The individual in pair 2 is correctly matched. He was an important Buddhist scholar in the 5th century who studied under Vasubandhu, one of the founders of the Yogachara sub-school of Mahayana Buddhism. He played a significant role in the development of Logic and is renowned for his major work, Pramana Samuchchaya.
Nathamuni	Pair 3 is correctly matched as the compiler of the Nalayira Divya Prabandham, which consists of 4000 Tamil verses by 12 Alvar saints, was a Vaishnava scholar in the 9th-10th century. Additionally, he is recognized as the first Sri Vaishnava Acharya.

57. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer – b

The correct answer is 2 only.

Statement 1 is incorrect as Jalaluddin Khalji ruled from 1290 to 1296, but the first Mongol invasion did not occur during his reign. The Mongols had pursued Jalaluddin Mangbarani of Khwarezm to India in 1221.
Statement 2 is correct as during the reign of Alauddin Khilji, the Mongols did invade India and laid siege to Delhi in 1303.
Statement 3 is incorrect. After about 1307, the Mongol threat had not disappeared suddenly, and it resurfaced during the early reign of Muhammad Tughlaq. The Chaghatai Khan Tarmashirin led an incursion, and the Mongol forces once again advanced to the Jumna but retired without actually entering the capital when he was paid a ransom. Thereafter, Hindustan was free of major inroads from this quarter for another sixty years or more, until the sack of Delhi by Timur in 1398.

58. With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran”?

(a) Arab merchants
(b) Qalandars
(c) Persian calligraphists
(d) Sayyids

Answer – d

The correct answer is Sayyids.

During the Delhi Sultanate era, the Sayyids, who were part of the theological class, were known as Kulah-Daran, which means “cap-wearers”. This was because of their distinctive pointed cap that set them apart from other theologians who were referred to as Dastarbandan, meaning “turban-wearers”, as that was their official headwear.

59. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
The English East India. Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – b

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Gajapati rulers in Odisha lasted from 1434 to 1541, but the Dutch factories were not established during this period. Masulipattanam was established in 1605, Pulicat in 1610, Bimilipatam/Bhimunipatnam in 1641, and Chinsura in 1653.
Statement 2 is correct. Afonso de Albuquerque captured Goa for the Portuguese in 1510 from the Adil Shahi rulers of Bijapur.
Statement 3 is correct. In 1639, the English East India Company (EIC) received permission from local Raja Darmala Venkatadri Nayaka to establish a factory at Madras, and Fort Saint George was built in 1640. Madras was the first piece of land leased by the EIC, which was achieved through friendship and negotiation without any war. Raja Darmala Venkatadri was a representative of the Vijayanagara Empire.

60. According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of the following are correct?

A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – d

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

The Arthashastra, attributed to Kautilya (also known as Chanakya), is an Indian treatise on politics, economics, military strategy, the function of the state, and social organization. He played a crucial role in establishing the reign of the great king Chandragupta Maurya (321-297 BCE).
According to the Arthashastra, there were various ways in which a person could become a slave, as stated by Kautilya. One of them was through judicial punishment. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
The Arthashastra was strict when it came to the rights of slaves, particularly female slaves. A female slave who bore her master a son was legally free. Also, if a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, he was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son. Therefore, both statement 2 and statement 3 are correct.

61. Consider the following statements:

Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – a

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Tight monetary policy refers to the actions taken by a central bank to slow down a rapidly growing economy or to control inflation. When the US Federal Reserve adopts this policy, India may experience a decrease in foreign capital investment due to the higher interest rates offered in the US which could attract investors away from India. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
Capital flight can destabilize interest rates and exchange rates and reduce monetary control, as well as increase the interest cost of firms with existing external commercial borrowings. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
The devaluation of a currency can increase the cost of borrowing for firms that have borrowed in foreign currency, which can negatively affect their investment and net worth. Therefore, the devaluation of a domestic currency increases the currency risk associated with external commercial borrowings. Thus, statement 3 is also correct.

62. Consider the following States:

Andhra Pradesh
Kerala
Himachal Pradesh
Tripura

How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?

(a) Only one State
(b) Only two States
(c) Only three States
(d) All four States

Answer – c

The correct answer is Option c.

Kerala, Himachal Pradesh, and Tripura are commonly known as tea-producing states in India.
The Anamallais, located between Tamil Nadu and Kerala, and the Wayanad-Nilgiris range in Kerala and Tamil Nadu, as well as the Munnar region in Kerala, are renowned for their tea production. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Tea is grown in Himachal Pradesh’s Mandi and Kangra districts on a total of 2,063 hectares of land. Kangra, known as “the valley of gods,” produces tea with a distinct flavor. Tea has been grown on the gentle slopes of the outer Himalayas since 1949, below the towering and exquisitely beautiful snow-clad Dhauladhar Mountain. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.
Tripura, along with Assam, is also one of the major tea-producing states in India. As a result, statement 4 is correct.
Andhra Pradesh is renowned for its coffee production and is not typically recognized as a tea-producing state. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

63. Consider the following statements:

In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – b

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

A credit rating agency is an entity which assesses the ability and willingness of the issuer company for timely payment of interest and principal on a debt instrument. Credit rating agencies are registered and regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). So, statement 1 is partially correct.
ICRA Limited (formerly Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India Limited) was established in 1991 by leading financial/investment institutions, commercial banks and financial services companies as an independent and professional investment information and credit rating agency. ICRA is a public limited company, with its shares listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange and the National Stock Exchange. So, statement 2 is correct.
Brickwork Ratings (BWR) is an Indian credit rating agency that offers rating services on bank loans, NCDs, commercial paper, fixed deposits, securitized paper, security receipts, etc. Founded by bankers, credit rating professionals, former regulators, and professors, BWR is committed to promoting financial literacy. BWR has its corporate office in Bengaluru. So, statement 3 is correct.

64. With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct?

The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – b

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

The Governor of RBI is not the Chairman of the Bank Board Bureau (BBB). The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet in its discretion appoints the Chairman and members of the BBB. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The BBB advises the Government on matters relating to appointments, confirmation or extension of tenure and termination of services of the Board of Directors in Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and financial institutions (FIs). It is responsible for the selection and appointment of Board of Directors of PSBs and FIs. So, statement 2 is correct.
One of the functions of the BBB is to help Public Sector Banks in terms of developing business strategies and capital raising plan, among other things. So, statement 3 is correct.

65. Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements:

As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – c

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Convertible bonds allow the holder to exchange them for a predetermined number of shares in the issuing company. They behave like regular corporate bonds but with slightly lower interest rates. Since convertibles can be converted into stock, and benefit from an increase in the underlying stock price, companies offer lower yields on convertibles. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
One of the benefits of convertible bonds is that the option to convert to equity provides the bondholder with some degree of protection against increasing consumer prices. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

66.Consider the following:

Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
Missile Technology Control Regime
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

India is a member of which of the above?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – d

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank focused on financing sustainable infrastructure projects. It was founded in Beijing in January 2016 and has since grown to 105 approved members worldwide, with India being a founding member. So, statement 1 is correct.
In 2018, India officially became a member of the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR), which aims to restrict the proliferation of missiles and related technology capable of carrying a 500 kg payload at least 300 km, as well as systems intended for the delivery of weapons of mass destruction (WMD). This membership allows India to become a global arms exporter and access sensitive technology. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is an intergovernmental organization founded in Shanghai on 15 June 2001, comprising eight Member States: China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. India became a full member of the SCO in 2017. So, statement 3 is correct.

67. Consider the following statements:

Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.
Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.
Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2

Answer – c

The correct answer is 1, 3 and 4.

Statement 1 is correct: Vietnam is one of Southeast Asia’s fastest-growing economies and is expected to be a global top 20 economy by 2050. Between 2002 and 2021, Vietnam’s GDP per capita increased 3.6 times, reaching almost US$3,700. Vietnam was one of only a few countries to post GDP growth in 2020 when the pandemic hit.
Statement 2 is not correct: There is no multi-party system in Vietnam. The Socialist Republic of Vietnam is an authoritarian regime headed by the Communist Party of Vietnam (CPV). While the ideological orthodoxy of Communism has become less important, the country is still influenced strongly by the CPV. The separation of powers between executive, legislative and judiciary is weak. The overlap between the CPV and the government is far-reaching.
Statements 3 and 4 are correct: Vietnam’s remarkable growth has been propelled by its openness to trade and investment. Its comparative advantage in low-cost labor has enabled Vietnam to emerge as a key manufacturing node in global supply chains. The exports from Vietnam have also shown huge growth. Vietnam’s total exports expanded 25.2% year-over-year in April 2022. Vietnam’s stable exchange rate kept around a 3% trading band by the central bank has been a key ingredient of the country’s foreign direct investment-driven export sector.
Statement 5 is not correct: Vietnam is not claimed to have the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region. Countries like the USA, South Korea, and Japan have highly advanced and productive e-service sectors.

68. In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?

(a) Department of Consumer Affairs
(b) Expenditure Management Commission
(c) Financial Stability and Development Council
(d) Reserve Bank of India

Answer – d

The correct answer is Reserve Bank of India.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is responsible for conducting monetary policy in India, as mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The primary goal of monetary policy is to maintain price stability and promote sustainable growth. The RBI Act was amended in May 2016 to establish a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework. Under this framework, the inflation target is set by the Government of India in consultation with the RBI every five years.

69. With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements:

They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium transactions. of commercial

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only.
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – a

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) are digital assets that can represent physical assets, such as art, music, in-game items, and videos. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
NFTs are typically bought and sold online, often with cryptocurrency, and they are created using similar programming to cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin. NFTs are stored on a blockchain, which is a decentralized public ledger that records transactions. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
Physical currency and cryptocurrencies are considered “fungible,” indicating their interchangeable nature and the fact that they can be exchanged or traded for one another. Additionally, they possess equal value, meaning that one dollar is always equivalent to another dollar, and likewise, one Bitcoin is always worth another Bitcoin. This attribute of fungibility in cryptocurrencies provides a reliable and dependable method for carrying out transactions on the blockchain.
However, NFTs differ in this regard. Each NFT has a unique digital signature, rendering it impossible for NFTs to be traded or considered equivalent to one another, thereby making them non-fungible.
Therefore, statement 3 is not correct.

70. Consider the following pairs:

Reservoirs: States

Ghataprabha: Telangana.
Gandhi Sagar: Madhya Pradesh
Indira Sagar: Andhra Pradesh
Maithon: Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs PAY
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

Answer – c

The correct answer is Option c.

The Ghataprabha reservoir, located in Gokak taluk of Belgaum district in Karnataka, serves the purpose of irrigation and drinking water requirements in the region, making pair 1 correctly matched.
The Gandhi Sagar reservoir is located in Madhya Pradesh and is one of the five water reservoirs of national importance. The Gandhi Sagar Dam, constructed in 1960, provides drinking water to several districts of Rajasthan and generates 115 megawatts of electricity, making pair 2 correctly matched.
The Indira Sagar Dam is a multipurpose dam project located in Madhya Pradesh in central India. It was built on the Narmada River, which flows from central India to western India, and is a multipurpose river valley project for the development of water resources in the Narmada region, making pair 3 correctly matched.
Maithon is located on the banks of the Barakar River, and the Maithon Dam is located about 48 km from the coal city of Dhanbad in Jharkhand. The dam has an underground power station and is one of its kind in the whole of South Asia, making pair 4 not correctly matched.

71. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures,
entrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?

(a) Central Statistics Office
(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(c) Labour Bureau
(d) National Technical Manpower Information System

Answer – c

The correct answer is Labour Bureau.

Since its establishment in 1920, the Labour Bureau has been responsible for collecting, compiling, analyzing, and disseminating labor statistics at both the national and state levels, covering various aspects of labor.
The different editions of the “Statistics of Industrial Disputes, Closures, Retrenchments, and Layoffs in India during 2006” are compiled based on monthly voluntary reports received from the Labor Departments of the states and the Regional Labor Commissioner (Central).

72. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?

CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer – a

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

The Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO) is the statistical authority for coal and lignite statistics in India under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008. It is responsible for conducting the Annual Coal & Lignite Survey, publishing Provisional Coal Statistics and Coal Directory of India, and monitoring the development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO) is also the competent authority under the Coal Bearing Area (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957 to hear any objections related to the Central Government’s Notification concerning the acquisition of coal-bearing land and to provide reports to the Central Government. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.
However, CCO is not responsible for ensuring that coal mining companies deliver coal to end-users within a prescribed time. Therefore, statement 4 is not correct.

73. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Answer – a

The correct answer is Option a.

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution pertains to the governance and administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes living in any State except for Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
When an area is designated as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, it implies that all the land in that area is presumed to be indigenous land. Therefore, not only is it prohibited for non-indigenous people to acquire land in these areas, but any land currently owned by non-tribals should be returned to the Scheduled Tribes if it is being transferred.

74. Consider the following statements:

The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – b

The correct answer is 2 only.

The India Sanitation Coalition (ISC) was launched in June 2015 at the Federation of Indian Chamber Commerce and Industry (FICCI). It aims to support and enable sustainable and safe sanitation practices by creating a common platform for multiple organizations through various catalytic actions. These actions involve facilitating WASH financing, with a focus on the private sector, forming partnerships with allied organizations to lead discussions on sustainable sanitation, gathering and sharing best practices in the sanitation advocacy field, and contributing to policy aspects of sanitation through participation in related forums. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA), founded in 1976, is a prominent institute of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India. It specializes in research and capacity building for the urban sector in India, offering innovative solutions to address the challenges faced by urban India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

75. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ?

(a)Central Water Commission
(b) Central Ground Water Board
(c) Central Ground Water Authority
(d) National Water Development Agency

Answer – c

The correct answer is Central Ground Water Authority.

The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 has established the Central Ground Water Authority with the mandate to regulate and manage the development of ground water resources in India. The authority is empowered to issue regulatory directions to this effect and also to appoint officers to carry out its functions.

76. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following
statements:

It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer – a

The correct answer is 3 only.

The United Nations Credentials Committee, composed of nine members appointed by the General Assembly based on the President’s recommendation, is established at the beginning of each regular session of the General Assembly.
The committee is responsible for reviewing the credentials of representatives from Member States, and it operates under the auspices of the UN General Assembly. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Credentials Committee typically meets in November and submits its report for approval to the General Assembly in December, after being established at the beginning of each regular session of the General Assembly. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Rule 28 of the Rules of Procedure of the General Assembly requires the Credentials Committee to scrutinize the credentials of representatives from Member States and submit a report on its findings to the General Assembly. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

77. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?

(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

Answer – a

The correct answer is Option a.

The Polar Code, developed by the International Maritime Organization, is a set of mandatory regulations under both the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) and the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL). It covers various aspects of ships operating in the polar waters, including design, construction, equipment, operation, training, search and rescue, and environmental protection measures.

78. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements :

The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the no the non-member States.
Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
Permanent Observers in General Assembly can the UN maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – d

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

The United Nations General Assembly can grant Observer Status to non-member states, international organizations, and other entities. Inter-governmental organizations are also eligible to seek observer status in the UN General Assembly. Therefore, statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Observer status is granted only to states and intergovernmental organizations whose activities relate to matters of interest to the Assembly.
Permanent Observers are allowed to participate in the sessions and activities of the General Assembly and maintain offices at the UN Headquarters. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

79. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:

The Tea Board is a statutory body.
It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

80. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?

(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
(c) Ignoring the consequences disastrous ecological while infrastructure development undertaking
(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme

Answer – a

The correct answer is Option a.

Greenwashing refers to the practice of giving false or misleading information about the environmental impact of a company’s products. Companies use greenwashing as a way to make their products seem more environmentally friendly than they actually are, in order to deceive consumers. This practice is considered unethical as it is an unsubstantiated claim.

84. Consider the following statements :

Gujarat has the largest solar park in India
Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport
Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

85. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:

A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

86. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?

(a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.
(b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
(c) A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.
(d) Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.

87. Consider the following pairs:

Country: Important reason for being in the news recently

Chad: Setting up a permanent military base by China
Guinea: Suspension of Constitution and Government by military
Lebanon: Severe and prolonged economic depression
Tunisia: Suspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

88. Consider the following pairs:

Region often mentioned in the news: Country.

Anatolia: Turkey
Amhara: Ethiopia.
Cabo Delgado: Spain.
Catalonia: Italy.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

89. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements :

Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

92. Consider the following pairs:

King: Dynasty

Nannuka: Chandela.
Jayashakti: Paramara.
Nagabhata II: Gurjara-Pratihara.
Bhoja: Rashtrakuta.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

93. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?

(a) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.
(b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
(c) Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic.
(d) Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.

95. The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja?

(a) The best means of salvation was devotion.
(b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.
(c) Logical arguments were meant for the highest bliss.
(d) Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.

97. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?

(a) They protect the environmental allergens. body
(b) They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.
(c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
(d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

98. Consider the following statements:

Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

99. Consider the following statements:

DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:

assess the age of a plant or animal.
distinguish among species that look alike.
identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only.
(b) 3 only.
(c) 1 and 2.
(d) 2 and 3.

100. Consider the following:

Carbon monoxide
Nitrogen oxide
Ozone
Sulphur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Post Views: 23

UPSC IAS Civil Services Preliminary (Prelims) Exam – 2022: General Studies Paper – 1 (Question Paper)

UPSC Daily Current Affairs – Prelims [17th February 2023]

Nebular hypothesis of Laplace – Geography Optional Notes

Indus Civilization Sculpture – UPSC Indian Heritage and Culture Notes

[ GENERAL STUDIES PAPER – 3 ] : UPSC MAINS CIVIL SERVICES IAS EXAM 2018 QUESTION PAPER

Forest Legislations – UPSC Indian Geography Notes

Food Web – UPSC Environment Notes

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